Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Romania in the past was a poor country, but last year the government announced it had 521 billion leu (113$ billion dollars) revenue. Why is so much? What's the reason?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What is the reason for the high number of stray dogs in Thailand? What measures are being taken to address this issue?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What do you think are the real reasons Matt Gaetz just withdrew his name for Attorney General in the upcoming Trump administration?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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